Will all be saved- or many- or just a few?
One of the criticisms levelled at Rob Bell's book 'Love Wins' is that of universalism- that is, the idea that in the end, everyone will be saved. He seems to argue most strongly for this position in chapter 4 "Does God get what God wants?", where he quotes (among others) 1 Timothy 2:3,4, which he translates as 'God wants all people to be saved and to come to a knowledge of the truth.' (p. 97) On reading the whole of chapter 2, it seems that Paul ( or the writer of 1 Tim) backs up this verse by referring to Jesus, who 'Gave himself a ransom for all' 1 Tim 2: 6. So I was really interested to look back at Mark 10:45, where Jesus himself is reported as saying 'For the Son of Man came not to be served but to serve, and to give his life as a ransom for many.' Did Jesus give his life for all, or for many? Why did Paul choose to write 'all', and Mark choose 'many'? Are these two writers trying to make different points, for differe